1. Suppose our double stranded molecule of DNA looks like this:
ATG GAC TAG GAG GCT
TAC CTG ATC CTC CGA
What would the RNA strand transcribed off the bottom half of this DNA look like?
a) AUG GAC UAG GAG GCU
b) TAC CTG ATC CTC CGA
c) ATG GAC TAG GAG GCT
d) UAC CUG AUC CUC CGA
2. What if I told you the amino acids in a particular enzyme were found
in the following order:
Phe - Ser - Tyr - Glu - Trp - Leu
could you tell me the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand it was built from?
a) yes, of course b) no, not with any certainty
3. After mitosis, the chromosome number of a daughter cell is ___________
the parent cell's.
a) twice b) half c) the same as
d) it depends
4. A replicated chromosome has two:
a) centrosomes b) chromosomes c) chromatids
d) centrioles
5. It's difficult to observe individual chromosomes in the nucleus during
interphase because
a) the chromosomes have migrated to the region outside the nuclear
envelope
b) the genetic material is in the form of
chromatin
c) the spindle must move them to the metaphase plate before they can
be observed
d) you can observe the individual chromosomes during interphase
6. Suppose a biochemist is observing a cell and she finds that the amount
of DNA doubles at some point. When is she likely to observed this doubling?
a) between prophase and anaphase of mitosis b)
during the S phase of the cell cycle c) during the
M phase of the cell cycle d) between anaphase and telophase of mitosis
7. Mitosis concerns nuclear division. What happens to the rest
of the cell?
a) cytokinesis b) spindle fiber
formation c) synapsis d) haplocleavage
8. Chromosomes have two main chemical components: _______ and _________.
a) RNA & protein b) Polypeptides & amino acids c)
DNA & protein d) carbohydrates & lipids
9. DNA is a polymer consisting of a double strand of ________.
a) polypeptide b) amino acids c) nucleotides
d) fibrils
10. Because of the strict pairing rules, each side of a DNA molecule
can be used as a template to make another strand. DNA strands are "unzipped"
and new DNA strands can be built on to each of the old halves. This is
called _____.
a) translation b) DNA replication
c) protein synthesis d) transcription e) mitosis
11. _________ is the process of turning nucleotide information into
amino acid type information. This is the actual synthesis of the polypeptide.
It takes place in the cytoplasm.
a) translation b) replication c)
transcription d) transference
12. The sequence of nucleotides in RNA is read in groups of 3, called
________.
a) protein synthesis links b) codons
c) domains d) transference sequences
13. An RNA strand is built by stringing together nucleotides in a sequence
determined by a region on one half of the DNA strand. Building this RNA
strand is called _________.
a) translation b) DNA replication c) protein synthesis d)
transcription
14. There are _______ possible codons.
a) 64 b) 20 c) 4 d) 98 e) 22
15. CUU, CUC, CUA, CUG all specify the amino acid leucine. This is why
the genetic code is said to be ____.
a) absolute b) ambiguous c) redundant
d) uncertain e) non-specific
16. A _________ is a tiny change in the sequence of bases (nucleotides)
in the DNA.
a) mutation b) codon c) nondisjunction
d) crossing over e) translation
17. This type of mutation can have a great impact because it can alter
codon sequence all the way down the rest of the RNA strand. These mutations
alter the "reading frame".
a) additions and deletions b) substitutions
c) replications d) duplications
18. If cells become cancerous, they devote much of their efforts to
division. This is at the expense of what they should be doing as
normal cells. What part of the cell cycle is skipped over very rapidly
for these cancer cells?
a) G1 b) S c) G2
d) Mitosis e) interphase
19. Because each individual human has unique DNA it can be used as crime
scene evidence. In order to find DNA evidence there must be some substance
left at the scene
a) that has cells in it b) that
has blood in it c) that was a liquid d) that was in very large quantities
20. The monomer units of DNA and RNA are
a) amino acids b) monosaccharides c) nucleotides
d) fatty acids e) nucleic acids
21. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the linking together of
ribonucleotides to form RNA?
a) RNA polymerase b) RNA ligase
c) a ribozyme d) reverse transcriptase e) tRNA
22. A physical or chemical agent the changes the nucleotide sequence
in DNA is called
a) a mutagen b) an advantage c)
a codon d) a translation e) an anticodon
23. Cells have a lot of parts, more than just proteins. How is it that
DNA can have all the instructions for what a cell or an individual needs
to live?
a) DNA has the instructions for how to make other macromolecules besides
just proteins
b) DNA has the information for how to make
proteins, many of which are the enzymes necessary to regulate the production
of everything else the cell needs
c) DNA is only part of what the cell needs, the rest it inherits with
the organelles during mitosis
d) DNA has most of the instructions, RNA has the rest
24. A nucleotide is made of which of the following chemical components?
a) a nitrogenous base, an amino acid, and a pentose sugar
b) a nitrogenous base, phosphate group, and
a pentose sugar
c) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a purine or pyrimidine
d) a nitrogenous base, ribose, and a pentose sugar
25. Which of the following sequences best describes the flow information
that takes place when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?
a) RNA DNA RNA Protein
b) DNA amino acid RNA protein
c) protein RNA DNA
d) DNA RNA protein
26. A base substitution mutation in a gene sometimes has no effect on
the protein the gene codes for. Which of the following factors could account
for this?
a) the redundancy of the genetic code
b) the rarity of such mutations c) the fact that such mutations are usually
accompanied by a complementary deletion d) this type of mutation usually
occurs in the part of the DNA sequence that no longer codes for important
proteins
27. A mutation in a gene for a regulatory protein (a protein that regulates
the cell cycle) could result in
a) a cancerous transformation b)
a viral infection c) gametogenesis d) spontaneous influenza
28. When the eukaryotic cell is not dividing, its genetic material can
be found in very long, thin fibers called
a) chromosomes b) the nucleolus c) chromatids d)
chromatin e) RNA
29. The phase of mitosis during which the nuclear envelope forms around
the chromosomes is
a) prophase b) telophase c) anaphase
d) metaphase e) interphase
30. The phase of mitosis during which the sister chromatids separate
is called
a) prophase b) telophase c) anaphase
d) metaphase e) interphase
31. The phase of mitosis during which the chromosomes first become visible
is called
a) prophase b) telophase c) anaphase
d) metaphase e) interphase
32. The phase of mitosis when the chromosomes are lined up along an
imaginary line, or "plate", is called
a) prophase b) telophase c) anaphase d) metaphase
e) interphase
33. What does the mitotic spindle apparatus do during mitosis?
a) it disappears b) it synthesizes chromatin c)
it helps separate the sister chromatids and guide them to opposite sides
of the cell d) it is part of cytokinesis
34. When would you be most likely to find a lot of DNA polymerase in
a cell?
a) G1 b) S c) G2
d) Mitosis
35. Please select the better statement
a) one enzyme can catalyze many kinds of reactions b)
enzymes are specific
36. In order for an enzyme inhibitor to operate, it must bind to an
enzyme's active site.
a) true b) false
37. Some people are reluctant to call viruses "living" things, preferring
instead to call them "infectious particles". As obligate parasites, viruses
lack ________
a) ribosomes b) energy sources c) an amino acid supply d)
all of these
38. Because HIV is a virus you know that
a) it uses protein for its genetic material b) it has no genetic material
c) it can only be caught by gay people d) it needs
a host cell to help it make copies of itself e) none of the
above